India Polity UPSC Question and Answer: Part 1

2023

1. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(d) Equality before law

Answer:

(c) Fair application of law

2. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer:

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

3. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security

Answer:

(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

4. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

Answer:

(a) 1st Amendment

5. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:

The National Commission for Backward Classes
The National Human Rights Commission
The National Law Commission
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer:

(a) Only one

6. Consider the following statements:

If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer:

(d) None

7. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer:

(a) Only one

8. With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:

Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:
Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer:

(b) Only two

9. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer:

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

10. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer:

(b) Only two

11. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

	Action	The Act under which it is covered
1.	Unauthorised wearing of police or military uniforms	The Official Secrets Act, 1923
2.	Knowingly misleading of otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties	The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3.	Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others	The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer:

(b) Only two

12. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India According to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :

Statement-I: One of the standard sizes the National Flag of India of 600 mm × 400 mm.

Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer:

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

13. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:

Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer:

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

14. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana :

It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer:

(b) Only two

15. Consider the following statements in the context interventions being undertaken under Anaemin Mukt Bharat Strategy:

It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth.
It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer:

(c) Only three

16. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.

Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organising health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer:

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

17. Consider the following statements:

According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer:

(b) Only two

18. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India :

The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer:

(a) Only one

19. Consider the following:

Demographic performance
Forest and ecology
Governance reforms
Stable government
Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

Answer:

(b) Only three

2022

1. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

(a) Central Statistics Office

(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

(d) National Technical Information System Manpower

Answer:

(c) Labour Bureau

2. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?

1. CCO is the major source of Coal. Statistics in Government of India.

2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.

3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.

4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

3. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.

(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Answer:

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

4. Consider the following statements:

1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.

2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(b) 2 only

5. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Ten Board is a statutory body.

2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.

4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Answer:

(d) 1 and 4

6. Consider the following statements:

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.

2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.

3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.

4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 3 only

Answer:

(b) 1, 2 and 4

7. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.

2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(b) 2 only

8. Consider the following statements:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.

2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.

3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

(b) 2 and 3 only

9. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.

2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(b) 2 only

10. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency

2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer:

(b) 2 only

11. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements?

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.

2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(b) 2 only

12. Consider the following statements:

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.

2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

Answer:

(c) Neither 1 nor 2

13. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.

2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.

3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

(c) 1 and 3 only

14. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.

2. As it aims to achieve universal, health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.

3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

15. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.

2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.

3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.

4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer:

(a) 1 and 3 only

2021

1. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates

(a) the Right to Equality

(b) the Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) the Concept of Welfare

Answer:

(b) the Directive Principles of State Policy

2. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

(a) Legal right available to citizens only

(b) Legal right available to any person

(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

Answer:

(b) Legal right available to any person

3. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

(a) A Democratic Republic

(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Answer:

(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

4. Constitutional government means

(a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure

(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers

(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Answer:

(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

5. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:

Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(b) 2 only

7. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(b) 2 only

8. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj

(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer:

(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

9. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 14

(b) Article 28

(d) Article 44

Answer:

(a) Article 14

10. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

(a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.

(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.

(d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

Answer:

(a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.

11. Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?

(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government

(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance

(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government

(d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary

Answer:

(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government

12. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:

Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(a) 1 only

13. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

Answer:

(a) 1 only

14. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

(a) A committed judiciary

(b) Centralization of powers

(d) Separation of powers

Answer:

(d) Separation of powers

15. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?

As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(c) Both 1 and 2

16. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(b) 2 only

17. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 19

(d) Article 29

Answer:

(c) Article 21

18. Consider the following statements:

In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

Answer:

Answers: Dropped out by UPSC

2020

1. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government

(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Answer:

(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

2. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State?

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy

(b) Fundamental Rights

(d) Seventh Schedule

Answer:

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy

3. Consider the following statements:

The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

Answer:

(b) 2 only

4. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is

(a) the final goal of a stateless society

(b) class struggle

Answer:

(a) the final goal of a stateless society

5. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy

(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism

(d) An agency or the implementation of public policy

Answer:

(d) An agency or the implementation of public policy

6. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect

(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either

(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Answer:

(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

7. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

They shall be enforceable by courts.
They shall not be enforceable by any court.
The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer:

(d) 2 and 3 only

8. Consider the following statements:

According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(a) 1 only

9. Consider the following statements:

The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer:

(c) 1 and 3 only

10. Consider the following statements:

Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing Aadhaar data.
Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer:

(b) 2 and 4 only

11. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

(a) the matter of creating new All India Services

(b) amending the Constitution

(d) making cut motions

Answer:

(b) amending the Constitution

12. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?

MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer:

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

13. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

(a) Right against Exploitation

(b) Right to Freedom

(d) Right to Equality

Answer:

(d) Right to Equality

14. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

(a) the Preamble of the Constitution

(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy

Answer:

(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy

15. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by

(a) Long standing parliamentary convention

(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India

(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

Answer:

(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

16. A constitutional government by definition is a

(a) government by legislature

(b) popular government

(d) limited government

Answer:

(d) limited government

17. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?

Preamble
Directive Principles of State Policy
Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

18. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?

Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000
Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000
Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000
All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

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Indian Polity Previous year Questions – UPSC Prelims (2011-2023) Part 1

India Polity UPSC Question and Answer: Part 1

UPSC Indian Polity Preliminary Question with Answers (2023-2020) Part 1

UPSC Indian Polity Preliminary Question with Answers (2019-2016) Part 2

UPSC Indian Polity Preliminary Question with Answers (2015-2011) Part 3

2023

2022

2021

2020

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