India Polity UPSC Question and Answer: Part 2

2019

1. Consider the following statements:

The 44^th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(b) 2 only

2. Consider the following statements:

The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
The Constitution of India defines and gives details or what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in 4 the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer:

(c) 3 and 4 only

3. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(d) Morarji Desai

Answer:

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

4. Consider the following statements:

The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

5. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a) Third Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(d) Twelfth Schedule

Answer:

(b) Fifth Schedule

6. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer:

(c) 1, 2 and 4

7. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the. Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament.

(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.

(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

Answer:

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament.

8. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(a) 1 only

9. Consider the following statements:

As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

(b) 2 and 3 only

10. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(d) Article 29

Answer:

(b) Article 21

11. Consider the following statements:

According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

(c) 3 only

12. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Answer:

(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)

13. Consider the following statements:

As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(a) 1 only

14. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
Finance Commission
Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 5

Answer:

(a) 1 and 2

15. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

(c) 3 only

16. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

(a) The proportion of literates in the population

(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines

(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

Answer:

(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

17. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b) Absence of restraint

(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Answer:

(b) Absence of restraint

2018

1. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution.

Answer:

(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.

2. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.

(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.

(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

Answer:

(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

3. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(a) 1 only

4. Consider the following statements:

The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(a) 1 only

5. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Answer:

(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

6. Consider the following statements:

No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(c) Both 1 and 2

7. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?

Limitation of powers
Equality before law
People’s responsibility to the Government
Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer:

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

8. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

Answer:

(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

9. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

(a) Committee on Government Assurances

(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

(d) Business Advisory Committee

Answer:

(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

10. Consider the following statements:

As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in a accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer:

(b) 2 only

11. Consider the following statements:

In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

(b) 2 only

12. Consider the following statements:

The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(a) 1 only

13. “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?

(a) Amnesty International

(b) International Court of Justice

(d) World Justice Project

Answer:

(d) World Justice Project

2017

1. Consider the following statements:

The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer:

(d) 3 only

2. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.

(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States,

(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Answer:

(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

3. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.

(d) a band of dedicated party workers.

Answer:

(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

4. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

(a) Federalism

(b) Democratic decentralization

(d) Direct democracy

Answer:

(b) Democratic decentralization

5. Consider the following statements:

A Constitutional Government is one which

Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(b) 2 only

6. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

(a) Liberty of thought

(b) Economic liberty

(d) Liberty of belief

Answer:

(b) Economic liberty

7. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

(a) The Preamble

(b) The Fundamental Rights

(d) The Fundamental Duties

Answer:

(a) The Preamble

8. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Natural Right

(d) Legal Right

Answer:

(c) Constitutional Right

9. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
Abolition of untouchability
Protection of the interests of minorities
Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer:

(c) 1 and 4 only

10. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

(a) Privileges

(b) Restraints

(d) Ideology

Answer:

(a) Privileges

11. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Answer:

(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

12. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.

(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

Answer:

(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.

13. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

legislative function
executive function

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.

(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

Answer:

(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

16. Consider the following statements:

In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

(b) 1 and 3 only

18. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.

(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.

(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Answer:

(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

19. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

(a) anyone residing in India.

(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(d) any citizen of India.

Answer:

(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

20. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

21. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

(a) the executive and legislature work independently.

(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Answer:

(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

22. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

Adjournment motion
Question hour
Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

23. In India, Judicial Review implies

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

Answer:

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

2016

1. Consider the following statements:

The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(b) 2 only

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(b) 2 only

3. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(b) 2 only

4. Consider the following statements:

The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Answer:

(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

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Indian Polity Previous year Questions – UPSC Prelims (2011-2023) Part 2

India Polity UPSC Question and Answer: Part 2

UPSC Indian Polity Preliminary Question with Answers (2023-2020) Part 1

UPSC Indian Polity Preliminary Question with Answers (2019-2016) Part 2

UPSC Indian Polity Preliminary Question with Answers (2015-2011) Part 3

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